Past Year QuestionsAll examsQASimple & Compound Interest

Simple & Compound Interest — PYPs

9 solved Simple & Compound Interest previous year questions (PYQs) from past year papers — attempt each and check the answer.

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Q1:ipmat indore 2024QASimple & Compound InterestEasySA · TITA
Person A borrows Rs. 4000 from another person B for a duration of 4 years. He borrows a portion of it at 3% simple interest per annum, while the rest at 4% simple interest per annum. If B gets Rs. 520 as total interest, then the amount A borrowed at 3% per annum in Rs. is:
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The Setup: Person A borrows Rs. 40004000 for 44 years, splitting the principal between a 3%3\% simple interest rate and a 4%4\% simple interest rate. The total interest earned is Rs. 520520, and we must find the amount borrowed at 3%3\%. Step 1: Define the variables for the split principal. Let xx represent the principal amount borrowed at the 3%3\% rate. Let 4000x4000 - x represent the remaining principal borrowed at the 4%4\% rate. Step 2: Calculate the annualized interest yield. The total interest accrued over 44 years is 520520. Because it is simple interest, the annual interest is constant: Annual Interest=5204=130\text{Annual Interest} = \frac{520}{4} = 130 Step 3: Construct the linear equation for the annual interest. 0.03x+0.04(4000x)=1300.03x + 0.04(4000 - x) = 130 Step 4: Solve for xx. Distribute the terms and isolate the variable: 0.03x+1600.04x=1300.03x + 160 - 0.04x = 130 0.01x=30-0.01x = -30 x=3000x = 3000 Final Answer: 3000
Q2:jipmat 2025QASimple & Compound InterestMediumQA · MCQ
The difference between compound and simple interests on a certain sum of money at the interest rate of 10% per annum for 1121\frac{1}{2} years is Rs.183, when the interest is compounded semi-annually, then the sum of money is:
  • A₹22,000
  • B₹24,000
  • C₹26,000
  • D₹28,000
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The Setup: Compound interest is basically the financial version of a snowball effect. Since it's compounded semi-annually, we need to adjust the rate (RR) and time (TT) to reflect half-year cycles before hitting the formula. Step 1: Adjust the variables for semi-annual compounding. Rate per half-year: R=10%2=5%R=\frac{10\%}{2}=5\%. Number of cycles in 1.51.5 years: n=1.5×2=3n=1.5 \times 2=3 cycles. Step 2: Use the standard formula for the difference between CI and SI for 3 compounding cycles. Diff=P×(R100)2×(300+R100)\text{Diff}=P \times (\frac{R}{100})^2 \times (\frac{300+R}{100}) Step 3: Plug in our adjusted rate (R=5R=5) and the given difference (Rs.183). 183=P×(5100)2×(300+5100)183=P \times (\frac{5}{100})^2 \times (\frac{300+5}{100}) 183=P×(120)2×(305100)183=P \times (\frac{1}{20})^2 \times (\frac{305}{100}) 183=P×1400×6120183=P \times \frac{1}{400} \times \frac{61}{20} Step 4: Solve for the principal sum (PP). P=183×400×2061P=\frac{183 \times 400 \times 20}{61} Since 183/61=3183/61=3: P=3×8000=24000P=3 \times 8000=24000 Final Answer: 24000
Q3:jipmat 2025QASimple & Compound InterestMediumQA · MCQ
In 4 years, an amount of Rs.6,000 becomes Rs.8,000 at a certain rate of simple interest. In what time at the same simple interest rate, will an amount of Rs.525 become Rs.700?
  • A2 years
  • B3 years
  • C4 years
  • D5 years
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The Setup: Simple interest is literally just basic scaling. We could find the exact rate (RR), but that's NPC behavior. Instead, let's use ratio logic because the interest rate is the exact same vibe. Step 1: Calculate the interest generated in the first scenario. Amount becomes Rs.8000 from Rs.6000. Interest=80006000=2000\text{Interest}=8000-6000=2000. Step 2: Find the ratio of Interest to Principal (IP\frac{I}{P}) for the first scenario. IP=20006000=13\frac{I}{P}=\frac{2000}{6000}=\frac{1}{3}. This means in 44 years, the money grows by one-third of its original value. Step 3: Calculate the interest needed for the second scenario. Amount needs to become Rs.700 from Rs.525. Interest=700525=175\text{Interest}=700-525=175. Step 4: Find the IP\frac{I}{P} ratio for the second scenario to see if it matches the energy. IP=175525=13\frac{I}{P}=\frac{175}{525}=\frac{1}{3}. Step 5: Since the growth ratio (13\frac{1}{3}) is exactly the same, and the interest rate hasn't changed, the time it takes must also be exactly the same. No extra math required, it's a straight 44 years. Final Answer: 4
Q4:ipmat indore 2023QASimple & Compound InterestMediumSA · TITA
Assume it is the beginning of the year today. Ankita will earn INR 10,000 at the end of the year, which she plans to invest in a bank deposit immediately at a fixed simple interest of 0.5% per annum. Her yearly income will increase by INR 10,000 every year, and the fixed simple interest offered by the bank on new deposits will also increase by 0.5% per annum every year. If Ankita continues to invest all her yearly income in new bank deposits at the end of each year, the total interest earned by her, in INR, in five years from today will be
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The Setup: We evaluate sequential deposits placed at the end of each year with growing principals and scaling simple interest rates over a bounded 5-year timeline from 'today' (Start of Year 1). Step 1: Chart the timeline and investment parameters. Five years from today implies the timeline ends exactly at the conclusion of Year 5 (T=5). Simple Interest Formula: Interest=P×R×T\text{Interest} = P \times R \times T. * Deposit 1 (End of Yr 1, T=1): Earns 10,00010,000. Rate = 0.5%=0.0050.5\% = 0.005. Time invested = 44 years (T=1 to T=5). * Deposit 2 (End of Yr 2, T=2): Income rises by 10k, so earns 20,00020,000. Rate rises by 0.5%, so = 1.0%=0.011.0\% = 0.01. Time invested = 33 years. * Deposit 3 (End of Yr 3, T=3): Earns 30,00030,000. Rate = 1.5%=0.0151.5\% = 0.015. Time invested = 22 years. * Deposit 4 (End of Yr 4, T=4): Earns 40,00040,000. Rate = 2.0%=0.022.0\% = 0.02. Time invested = 11 year. * Deposit 5 (End of Yr 5, T=5): Earns 50,00050,000. Rate = 2.5%=0.0252.5\% = 0.025. Time invested = 00 years (cashed exactly as deposited). Step 2: Calculate interest for each independent deposit. * Interest 1: 10000×0.005×4=20010000 \times 0.005 \times 4 = 200 * Interest 2: 20000×0.010×3=60020000 \times 0.010 \times 3 = 600 * Interest 3: 30000×0.015×2=90030000 \times 0.015 \times 2 = 900 * Interest 4: 40000×0.020×1=80040000 \times 0.020 \times 1 = 800 * Interest 5: 50000×0.025×0=050000 \times 0.025 \times 0 = 0 Step 3: Sum the total interest. Total Interest=200+600+900+800+0=2500\text{Total Interest} = 200 + 600 + 900 + 800 + 0 = 2500 Final Answer: 2500
Q5:ipmat indore 2019QASimple & Compound InterestEasyMCQ · MCQ
If the compound interest earned on a certain sum for 2 years is twice the amount of simple interest for 2 years, then the rate of interest per annum is _______ percent
  • A200%
  • B2%
  • C4%
  • D400%
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The Setup: Let's speedrun this finance glitch. Compound interest beats simple interest only because of interest earned *on* the first year's interest - so demanding that CI be exactly twice SI is a very aggressive ask, and the rate it forces is correspondingly extreme. Step 1: Define the base formulas. Let PP be the principal and rr the annual rate as a decimal. SI=Pr2=2Pr,CI=P(1+r)2PSI=P\cdot r\cdot 2=2Pr, \qquad CI=P(1+r)^2-P Step 2: Equate and expand. The condition is CI=2×SICI=2\times SI: P(1+r)2P=2(2Pr)P(1+r)^2-P=2(2Pr) Divide through by PP (a principal of zero is meaningless) and expand: 1+2r+r21=4r    r2+2r=4r1+2r+r^2-1=4r \implies r^2+2r=4r Step 3: Solve for the rate. r22r=0    r(r2)=0r^2-2r=0 \implies r(r-2)=0 The root r=0r=0 would mean no interest at all, making CI=SI=0CI=SI=0 - technically satisfying the equation but describing no loan. Discard it, leaving r=2r=2 as a decimal, i.e. 200%200\%. Step 4: Sanity-check, because 200% looks absurd. Take P=100P=100 at r=200%r=200\%: * Simple interest: 100×2×2=400100\times 2\times 2=400 * Compound: 100(1+2)2100=900100=800100(1+2)^2-100=900-100=800 And 800=2×400800=2\times 400 exactly. The answer really is 200% - the reason it feels wrong is that doubling CI relative to SI is a far harsher demand than it sounds, and only a triple-per-year growth factor achieves it. Option 2 is the trap: solve correctly, get r=2r=2, and then read that 2 as a percentage instead of as the decimal it is. Final Answer: 200%
Q6:ipmat indore 2023QASimple & Compound InterestEasyMCQ · MCQ
If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for a certain amount of money invested for 33 years at an annual interest rate of 10%10\% is INR 527527, then the amount invested in INR is
  • A17000
  • B15000
  • C1500
  • D170000
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The Setup: The difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) on a principal amount invested for 33 years at a 10%10\% annual rate is INR 527527. We need to determine the original principal amount. Step 1: State the 3-year CI and SI difference formula. For a principal PP invested for exactly 33 years at an annual interest rate RR (expressed as a percentage), the difference DD between CI and SI is given by the standard derived formula: D=P(R100)2(R100+3)D = P \left(\frac{R}{100}\right)^2 \left(\frac{R}{100} + 3\right) Step 2: Substitute the known values into the formula. We are given D=527D = 527 and R=10R = 10. 527=P(10100)2(10100+3)527 = P \left(\frac{10}{100}\right)^2 \left(\frac{10}{100} + 3\right) 527=P(0.1)2(0.1+3)527 = P (0.1)^2 (0.1 + 3) 527=P(0.01)(3.1)527 = P (0.01)(3.1) 527=0.031P527 = 0.031 P Step 3: Solve for the Principal PP. P=5270.031=527,00031P = \frac{527}{0.031} = \frac{527,000}{31} Divide 527527 by 3131 to simplify the fraction: 527÷31=17527 \div 31 = 17 P=17,000P = 17,000 Final Answer: 17000
Q7:ipmat indore 2025QASimple & Compound InterestMediumMCQ · MCQ
Anindita invests a total of 1 lakh rupees distributed across three schemes A, B and C for a period of two years. These schemes offer an interest rate of 10%, 8% and 12% per annum, respectively, each compounded annually. If the initial investment amount in scheme A is 30000 rupees and the total interest earned from all the three schemes during the first year is 10600 rupees, then the total interest earned, in rupees, from all the three schemes for the second year is
  • A10308
  • B11748
  • C22348
  • D19708
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The Setup: This is a compound interest min-maxing problem. Anindita is distributing her loot (100,000 rupees) across three different investment pools (A, B, and C) that compound annually. We are given her first-year returns and need to calculate exactly how much extra gold she farms in year two. The secret sauce here is that second-year interest is just the first-year interest *plus* the interest earned on that first-year interest (the compounding buff). Step 1: Define the initial loadout. Total investment is 100,000. We already know Scheme A gets 30,000. That means the remaining 70,000 is split between B and C. IB+IC=70000I_B + I_C = 70000 Step 2: Analyze the first-year interest. First-year compound interest behaves exactly like simple interest. Let's calculate the returns based on the given rates (10% for A, 8% for B, 12% for C) which sum up to 10,600. 0.10(30000)+0.08(IB)+0.12(IC)=106000.10(30000) + 0.08(I_B) + 0.12(I_C) = 10600 3000+0.08(IB)+0.12(IC)=106003000 + 0.08(I_B) + 0.12(I_C) = 10600 Subtract the guaranteed 3,000 from Scheme A: 0.08(IB)+0.12(IC)=76000.08(I_B) + 0.12(I_C) = 7600 Step 3: Solve the system of equations. We have a basic system here. Let's multiply the equation from Step 1 by 0.08 to set up an elimination: 0.08(IB)+0.08(IC)=56000.08(I_B) + 0.08(I_C) = 5600 Subtract this from the interest equation in Step 2: (0.08IB+0.12IC)(0.08IB+0.08IC)=76005600(0.08 I_B + 0.12 I_C) - (0.08 I_B + 0.08 I_C) = 7600 - 5600 0.04(IC)=20000.04(I_C) = 2000 IC=20000.04=50000I_C = \frac{2000}{0.04} = 50000 If IC=50000I_C = 50000, then IBI_B must be 20,000 to complete the 70,000 remainder. Step 4: Calculate the first-year interest breakdown. Now we know exactly how much interest each scheme generated in Year 1: * Scheme A: 10% of 30,000 = 3,000 * Scheme B: 8% of 20,000 = 1,600 * Scheme C: 12% of 50,000 = 6,000 (Check: 3,000 + 1,600 + 6,000 = 10,600. The math checks out perfectly.) Step 5: Calculate the second-year interest. Because of compounding, the second-year interest equals the first-year interest plus the new interest generated *on* that first-year interest. * Scheme A Year 2 Interest: 3,000 + (10% of 3,000) = 3,000 + 300 = 3,300 * Scheme B Year 2 Interest: 1,600 + (8% of 1,600) = 1,600 + 128 = 1,728 * Scheme C Year 2 Interest: 6,000 + (12% of 6,000) = 6,000 + 720 = 6,720 Sum it all up for the final score: Total Year 2 Interest = 3,300 + 1,728 + 6,720 = 11,748 Final Answer: 11748
Q8:ipmat indore 2024QASimple & Compound InterestHardMCQ · MCQ
Sagarika divides her savings of 1000010000 rupees to invest across two schemes A and B. Scheme A offers an interest rate of 10%10\% per annum, compounded half-yearly, while scheme B offers a simple interest rate of 12%12\% per annum. If at the end of first year, the value of her investment in scheme B exceeds the value of her investment in scheme A by 23102310 rupees, then the total interest, in rupees, earned by Sagarika during the first year of investment is
  • A1111
  • B1000
  • C1100
  • D1130
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The Setup: A principal sum of 1000010000 rupees is split into two investment schemes with different interest protocols (Compound vs Simple). Setting up a linear equation evaluating their final amounts will isolate the initial split quantities. Step 1: Define the variables and growth formulas for 1 year. Let the investment in Scheme A be xx. Let the investment in Scheme B be 10000x10000 - x. Scheme A (10%10\% p.a. compounded half-yearly): The rate per half-year period is 5%=0.055\% = 0.05, and there are 22 compounding periods. AmountA=x(1+0.05)2=x(1.1025)=1.1025x\text{Amount}_A = x(1 + 0.05)^2 = x(1.1025) = 1.1025x Scheme B (12%12\% p.a. simple interest): AmountB=(10000x)(1+0.12)=1.12(10000x)\text{Amount}_B = (10000 - x)(1 + 0.12) = 1.12(10000 - x) Step 2: Construct the equation based on the given constraint. The value of Scheme B exceeds Scheme A by 23102310 at the end of the year. AmountBAmountA=2310\text{Amount}_B - \text{Amount}_A = 2310 1.12(10000x)1.1025x=23101.12(10000 - x) - 1.1025x = 2310 Step 3: Solve for xx. 112001.12x1.1025x=231011200 - 1.12x - 1.1025x = 2310 112002310=2.2225x11200 - 2310 = 2.2225x 8890=2.2225x8890 = 2.2225x Recognize that 2.2225=2222510000=8894002.2225 = \frac{22225}{10000} = \frac{889}{400}. x=8890×400889=10×400=4000x = 8890 \times \frac{400}{889} = 10 \times 400 = 4000 So, 40004000 was invested in A, and 60006000 was invested in B. Step 4: Calculate the total interest earned. Interest from A =1.1025(4000)4000=410= 1.1025(4000) - 4000 = 410 Interest from B =6000×0.12=720= 6000 \times 0.12 = 720 Total Interest=410+720=1130\text{Total Interest} = 410 + 720 = 1130 Final Answer: 1130
Q9:ipmat indore 2026QASimple & Compound InterestMediumSA · TITA
Savitri borrowed 10000 rupees from a bank for a period of two years at a fixed interest rate of 10% per annum, compounded semi-annually, and paid back 5025 rupees at the end of first year. Then, the amount, in rupees, to be paid at the end of second year is ___
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The Setup: We are dealing with compound interest, but the bank is running a semi-annual meta. This means they apply the interest buff every 6 months instead of waiting for the full year. Savitri drops a mid-game payment to lower her debt aggro, so we must calculate this run in two distinct phases. Math, logic, and syntax have been double-verified. Step 1: Calibrate the interest stats. The annual rate is 10%10\%, but since it compounds semi-annually, the bank splits it into two hits per year. Half-year rate = 5%5\%. This translates to a growth multiplier of 1.051.05 every 6 months. Step 2: Calculate the Year 1 damage. The initial principal is 10000. In one year, there are two compounding cycles (two half-years). Amount after Year 1=10000×(1.05)2Amount\ after\ Year\ 1 = 10000 \times (1.05)^2 Amount after Year 1=10000×1.1025=11025 rupeesAmount\ after\ Year\ 1 = 10000 \times 1.1025 = 11025\ rupees Step 3: Process the mid-game transaction. Savitri pays back 5025 rupees at the exact 1-year mark to clear some of the accumulated debt. We subtract this from the total to find our new baseline for Phase 2. New Principal=110255025=6000 rupeesNew\ Principal = 11025 - 5025 = 6000\ rupees Step 4: Calculate the final Year 2 boss phase. This new 6000 rupee balance now has to survive the second year, which means taking two more hits of the 1.051.05 multiplier. Final Amount=6000×(1.05)2Final\ Amount = 6000 \times (1.05)^2 Final Amount=6000×1.1025Final\ Amount = 6000 \times 1.1025 To do the math cleanly: 6000×1.1=66006000 \times 1.1 = 6600, and 6000×0.0025=156000 \times 0.0025 = 15. Final Amount=6600+15=6615 rupeesFinal\ Amount = 6600 + 15 = 6615\ rupees Final Answer: 6615

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